Quote:
Originally Posted by Genetic
"Marital property: (sold and split proceeds, or given to wife): Sold my share (determined in accordance to the ratio we paid) of the property to my ex-wife."
I like to ask, if (Prior to marriage), the husband owned a fully-paid property (either he very high earning, or his parents very wealthy and transfer a property to his name in full).......
When divorce happen, what will happen to this property? Does he have to give up half to the wife?
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Yes and no, it depends, among other factors, how and when was the property acquired.
For example if the parents gave the property as a martial gift...then the wife may be given a share...however if say the property is held in trust by the husband for his parents, then naturally cannot lah.
The thing is divorce proceedings are not so straight forward it depends on how the facts are presented...the best is spend some money and consult a lawyer.